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=== Assistant: This is a very important logical question, and you are right to insist on clarity here. === This is a very important logical question, and you are right to insist on clarity here. The short answer is: You do not “rule them out”; you change the problem. By defining mild solutions in C([0,T];X)C([0,T];X)C([0,T];X), you are not claiming equivalence with all classical or distributional solutions. You are selecting a solution concept with built-in continuity and then proving that it coincides with classical solutions when those exist. Below is the precise logical structure. ==== A definition is a selection principle, not a theorem. ==== When you define: : you are saying: Only functions with this regularity are under consideration. You are not asserting: * that every classical solution must be continuous in XXX, * nor that discontinuous classical solutions cannot exist abstractly. You are instead defining a class of admissible solutions. This is completely standard and unavoidable in PDE theory. ==== A “classical solution” means: ==== * the PDE holds pointwise (or in a strong sense), * spatial derivatives exist, * time derivative exists pointwise. It does not automatically imply t↦u(t)∈Xis continuous.t \mapsto u(t) \in X \quad \text{is continuous.}t↦u(t)∈Xis continuous. For example: * a function may be smooth in space for each fixed ttt, * yet jump in time in a strong norm. So a “classical but XXX-discontinuous” object is logically possible. Your definition of mild solution simply does not admit such objects. ==== Navier–Stokes is ill-posed unless you impose both ==== # an equation, and # a function class. Without (2), the problem has too many pathological solutions. Examples across PDE theory: * Weak solutions to Euler are non-unique without admissibility. * Transport equations admit wild discontinuous solutions unless continuity or renormalization is imposed. * Navier–Stokes admits distributional solutions with arbitrary time behavior unless energy or regularity constraints are added. Thus: : ==== The correct logic is: ==== ===== Let uuu be a classical solution on [0,T][0,T][0,T] such that ===== u∈C([0,T];X).u \in C([0,T];X).u∈C([0,T];X). Then uuu satisfies the mild (Duhamel) formulation, hence is a mild solution. This theorem is true and provable. The converse: : Also true and provable by semigroup smoothing. ✅ Together, these show equivalence on the intersection of classes — not universal equivalence. ==== If you allow discontinuities in time in strong norms: ==== * the Duhamel integral is not well-defined as a Bochner integral, * uniqueness typically fails, * continuous dependence on data fails, * semigroup methods collapse. Therefore: : This is not an arbitrary restriction; it is the minimal structure needed. ==== : ==== ==== If your concern is philosophical completeness, you can state explicitly: ==== : : This removes all ambiguity and is standard in serious PDE texts. If you want, next I can: * formalize this as a commuting diagram of solution concepts, * show explicitly why time discontinuity destroys Duhamel equivalence, * or discuss minimal continuity assumptions weaker than C([0,T];X)C([0,T];X)C([0,T];X) (e.g. weak continuity + energy bounds). Just tell me.
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